1) I understand that to get both brown and red F2 offsprings, the genotypes of F1 have to be heterozygous Rr * Rr.

*Now what I'm confused is why are we looking for the probability of the parents F1? Also, how is this different from this type of question "What are the probability of the offsprings that are red and brown," which asks for the Probability of the offsprings, not the parents?*2) Fooballa then asked his/her own question "

**What are the odds of producing F2 red beetles only from F1 beetles?."**So out of 3 different red genotypes, only Rr*RR (1/3 * 1/3= 1/9) and RR*RR (1/3 *2/3= 2/9) would yield only red F2 offsprings. Then I added 1/9 + 2/9 = 1/3 as the answer. However, this is wrong. I have a couple of questions regarding his/her explanation:

*a) Why did she/he find the probability of Rr*Rr when these genotypes will give red and brown? I excluded the heterozygous genotype.*

b) In this question, why did he/she also include the probability of the offspring having the genotype in the multiplication, when the original AAMC problem doesn't include the genotype of the offspring in the multiplication?b) In this question, why did he/she also include the probability of the offspring having the genotype in the multiplication, when the original AAMC problem doesn't include the genotype of the offspring in the multiplication?