I would just like more explanation on how this answer was reached. I attached a screenshot of the problem. How is there a 10% of the daughter having a X-linked recessive disease when the mother has a 10% that she is heterozygous. Given the father has the disease, wouldn't the daughter have a 5% chance since there is a 50% chance the mother will pass down her affected allele given there is a 10% chance that she can pass it down in the first place.
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