FL #3 B/B Question 2

Post Reply
heatfan
Posts: 26
Joined: Sun Apr 30, 2017 12:34 pm

FL #3 B/B Question 2

Post by heatfan » Sun Jul 01, 2018 4:57 pm

Hello,

I wanted to know are they saying nondisjunction is 100 % or 1 because all these trisomies are a result of nondisjunction? Also, how are we supposed to calculate 1/130 when taking the exam? We are not given any calculator and it seems to be a strenuous calculations. Thanks.
NS_Tutor_Katelyn
Posts: 157
Joined: Wed May 30, 2018 11:51 am
Location: Minnesota
Contact:

Re: FL #3 B/B Question 2

Post by NS_Tutor_Katelyn » Wed Jul 04, 2018 2:29 pm

heatfan wrote:Hello,

I wanted to know are they saying nondisjunction is 100 % or 1 because all these trisomies are a result of nondisjunction? Also, how are we supposed to calculate 1/130 when taking the exam? We are not given any calculator and it seems to be a strenuous calculations. Thanks.
If non-disjunction occurs, then there is a 100% chance of an abnormal phenotype. We know from the question that there is a 1/130 chance of non-disjunction occurring, which is a little less than 1%. Therefore, the odds of a phenotypically normal offspring would be about 99%. Of all the options, answer choice A is closest to that.

Hopefully that helps!

-Kate
Katelyn Sawyer
Senior Tutor
katelyn@nextsteptestprep.com
Post Reply